Correlation Between “NON-Right-to-Work” Law & 2-Party-Consent Law (via Arlenearmy’s Blog)

Here is an interesting theory.

Correlation Between "NON-Right-to-Work" Law & 2-Party-Consent Law I’ve noticed a correlation between Forced Unionized States, Blue States and Two-Party-Consent-States. 1.  GROUP #1 –  Forced Unionized States = Blue States: Currently, there are 28 “Non-Right-to-Work-States” (Forced Unionized), and all of them are Blue (democrats).   The question of WHY is rhetorical.  Apparently, these Forced Unionized States (particularly in public sector) are forcibly being used as collection agencies to garnish union dues fro … Read More

via Arlenearmy’s Blog

Is forced unionization constitutional? I suppose that depends upons state law, but there is an obvious question. When government forces employers and employees to unionize, doesn’t that deprive both of their rights? What is the point of having a priviately owned business if nitnoid government bureaucrats and union bosses run the show? Why should employees be forced to pay dues to a union they don’t want to join?

And what about forcing employees to contribute to a political party? What kind of idiot do you have to be to believe that doesn’t deprive the employees of their rights?